robert_roaldi1 Posted December 23, 2005 Share Posted December 23, 2005 I live in Ottawa, Canada and there is a Pepsi television ad appearing locally (maybe elsewhere) in which a Coke truck pulls up beside a Pepsi truck at a blocked railroad level crossing. Some cute stuff happens and the Coke driver steals a few cases of Pepsi. What I am wondering about is how Pepsi can get away with displaying the Coca-Cola logo on the truck and its drivers' hats. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
keith turrill Posted December 23, 2005 Share Posted December 23, 2005 One year they had similar advertisements in the US. My recollection was a holiday truce or something like that. I had often wondered the same thing. Even if the companies entered into limited agreement to swap trademarks for an advertisement, I would think that any agreement would get the attention of anti-trust regulators. The question would probably have to be answered by somebody with experience in trademark and anti-trust law. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bert_krages1 Posted December 23, 2005 Share Posted December 23, 2005 Trademark infringement is different from copyright infringement. The basic gist of trademark infringement is whether the use of the mark would tend to confuse consumers. Putting a Pepsi logo on a bottle of Coke would constitute infringement because it might confuse consumers as to whether the product was Coke or Pepsi. Using a mark in a hostile commercial is not infringement because consumers are not likely to be confused about to the origins of the products. I really doubt that there is any kind of holiday truce. Executives with Coca-Cola are probably fuming. Last year, some of the US networks pulled three Miller Brewing Co. ads, including one that showed a Budweiser delivery person wearing Capri pants. The reason was that Anheuser-Busch complained to the networks that its products were being inappropriately disparaged. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
john_h.1 Posted December 23, 2005 Share Posted December 23, 2005 "Using a mark in a hostile commercial is not infringement because consumers are not likely to be confused about to the origins of the products. " Especially since the purpose of the commercial is to contrast and differentiate the products. Excellent point. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
keith turrill Posted December 23, 2005 Share Posted December 23, 2005 <p>I don't go into clubs much anymore but I recall that many of the beverage delivery people are Teamsters. At least in the US. Depicting a driver in uniform stealing soda-pop might not side well with a few union locals.</p> <p>The commercial that ran in the US several years ago depicted two drivers swapping cans at a diner with the Youngblood's song <i>"Get Together"</i> playing in the background. Not quite as adversarial.</p> Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
enlightened-images Posted December 25, 2005 Share Posted December 25, 2005 If you look closely at many commercials like this, and to further avoid confusion (in Very Smal Type) you should see a legal disclaimer that says "XXXXXX" is a Registered Trademark of "Company". <br> <br> Gary Crabbe<br> <b><a href="http://www.enlightphoto.com">Enlightened Images</a></b><br><br> Enlightened Images is a Registered Trademark yada yada yada...<br> Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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