hique Posted April 9, 2006 Share Posted April 9, 2006 I was just doing some testing with a 35mm reflex with no lens. Metering the light from a plain surface with no lens gave me the exposure time of 1/250. Metering the same surface with a 35mm lens gave the exposure time of 1/30 with an aperture of F:2.8 So I could conclude that using a camera with no lens gives us an f: number of 1. Is this correct? An F:1 aperture would allow as much light to reach the film as if there was no lens at all? If so, Wow...that's a lot of light :) Cheers Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
stephen hazelton Posted April 9, 2006 Share Posted April 9, 2006 When you meter with a lens, in some way, the lens communicates to the camera body what the aperture is versus what it will be when the shot is made. So if you're metering with an f/1.4 lens and have it set to f/8, the metering in the camera body has to have that information to function properly- specifically, has to know that when you shoot, the exposure will be 5 stops slower than right now. When you meter without a lens, that information is not furnished. If you know how your camera body functions without a lens, fine, but otherwise, don't assume that it automatically is metering correctly for the circumstances. The camera body isn't designed to function without a lens, the owner's manual probably doesn't tell you whether it's functioning right or not, so I would guess the reading you get is fairly meaningless. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hique Posted April 9, 2006 Author Share Posted April 9, 2006 Hmm...I see But I thought it was such a coincidence to be F:1, a special number, that I concluded that it was correct. My camera is a manual one with no eletronic contacts, although I know there are mechanic contacts. So you are saying that if I make other tests the camera without the lens it will meter differently, not as if it were an f:1 aperture? Anyway I will do some futher testings. I will share it with you later. Cheers Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
frank.schifano Posted April 9, 2006 Share Posted April 9, 2006 No, that's not how it works. The f number of a lens is nothing more than a number. It is the result of dividing the diameter of the iris opening (aperture) into the focal length of the lens. That's all. A 50mm lens at f/2 has an iris opening of 25mm. At f/1 the same lens has an aperture of 50mm f/number = focal length/aperture diameter. Yes, it is that simple. Now that you know the formula, you can work out any f/number for any lens or you can calculate the aperture's diameter from the f/number and focal length. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hique Posted April 9, 2006 Author Share Posted April 9, 2006 I know the formula and what the F: number means. But as far as we are talking about light levels and not focal length and mm's, the Nikon F-mount seemed to be F:1. As our other fellow suggests, that behavior should not be the same within other lighting situations. Isn't it? I would still think that some relation can be achieved. That way I could meter the light with no lens attached (not sure why I would want that, though. Lol). Thanks for the responses so far. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kelly_flanigan1 Posted April 9, 2006 Share Posted April 9, 2006 In the Nikon school of the late 1960's, they showed you how you could use a translucent body cap, set the camera's meter like using a preset lens, and set the asa to force the rig to be a poor mans incident light meter. Since this was from the slide rule era, simple and practical, it must be declared as "impossible" :)! Some folks expoxied a semi transparent white easter egg to a body cap with a hole in it, to create a wider angular coverage. Old Pop photo had an article on doing this when the first TTL slr cameras came out. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
stefan_g Posted April 10, 2006 Share Posted April 10, 2006 I would guess it means the meter in your camera accepts light from an opening angle equivalent to what f/1 would be on this particular lens. I don't think this is necessarily the same as the restriction the mount diameter places on light reaching the film plane. Also, there's nothing magic about f/1. In principle you could make faster lenses (and I think a few have been made). Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
frank uhlig Posted April 10, 2006 Share Posted April 10, 2006 Well, how far off the film plane is your camera's lens mount? Around 40 +/ mm, right? How wide is your lens mount diameter: around 40 mm also. And there you have it: F/1. Of course ... opening diameter / focal length, length of lens = f number. Or 40 / 40 = 1. Eureka! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hique Posted April 10, 2006 Author Share Posted April 10, 2006 Uhlig, That makes sense...I guess :) Although the early replys from our fellow members indicated that what I was writing didn't make sense, I think there is so possible logic in that. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
charles_stobbs3 Posted April 11, 2006 Share Posted April 11, 2006 A pinhole camera has no lens but the further the pinhole is from the film plane the larger and dimmer the picture is. So the equivalent f number is dependent on both the diameter and focal length and differs in every camera. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
edgreene Posted April 11, 2006 Share Posted April 11, 2006 I won't bother you with numbers and formulas per se.<p> But the glass in my f/1:1.2 lenses (50mm (EOS) & 55mm (FD) have front elements more than 1" across.<p> What is the approximate width of the lens in question? Under 1"? If so, it <i><b>cannot</b></i> be an f/1 lens. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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