erb_duchenne Posted July 26, 2003 Share Posted July 26, 2003 I've read in many reviews and discussions about the sensing area smaller than 35mm in the 10D and other DSLRs causing a 'telephoto' effect on lenses. I'm not very good at math, but can someone explain to me how the equivalent calculation of mm can be done? For example, what would a 28mm lens be on the 10D? Also, is the chip size different between the D30 and D60? Any insight into this will be much appreciated. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
david_eppstein Posted July 26, 2003 Share Posted July 26, 2003 For everything but a fisheye, you just multiply the focal length by 1.6, e.g. 28*1.6 is around 45, so a 28mm on a 10D gives you similar framing to a 45mm on a full-frame digital or 35mm film camera. Chip size is the same between the D30, D60, and 10D, but different for the 1D and 1Ds. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
www.alaskanphotographs.com Posted July 31, 2003 Share Posted July 31, 2003 I own a 10D, and I use the tamron 19-35mm lens. This effectivly gives me 30.4mm. This was as close to 28mm that I could get without breaking the bank! If you can afford a lens like Canon's 17-40mm, that will get you down to 27.2mm. I recommend the DSLRs. Good luck! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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